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Showing results for tags 'house rules'.
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Greetings, I belong to an organisation which has a fairly simple set of Bylaws, which include the statement : <Start> RULES OF ORDER Robert’s Manual or Cushing’s Manual shall govern all other rules pertaining to the transaction of the business of the <organization>. <End> However, following the actual Bylaws, is an insert (in the same booklet) Entitled "House Rules". The "House Rules" includes the following entry: <Start> Any member or Officer of the <organisation>. may be fined, removed, suspended, or expelled from his office or the <organization>, or from both, for any of the following causes: 1. Dishonesty, immoral conduct, intoxication, quarreling, or tending to reflect discredit upon the <organization>. 2. Violation of all or any part of the membership obligation. The Governing Board has full authority and is required to strictly enforce the foregoing rules. <End> While the reference to " Robert’s Manual or Cushing’s Manual" is a bit dated, the membership accepts that the current RONR is the authority intended. With that said, I have the following question: 1) Do the "House Rules" override RONR? The question arises due to a decision of the Governing board to remove a member from the <organization> without a vote from the membership. . It is their opinion that the "House Rules" apply, and not RONR...And as such, four (4) people (based on our Governing Board quorum) have the ability to deprive a member of their membership without consulting the general membership at all. At least, this is the Governing Board's interpretation of the situation. Thank you in advance for your assistance with this question!