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Hello. I know that a motion to rescind needs a majority with notice or 2/3 vote with no notice and that RR indicates notice is defined as occurring at the previous meeting or the call for the meeting; I would like to confirm my interpretation of this. We have monthly meetings that are prescheduled and notice is given months in advance. At our last regular meeting (2 weeks ago) we agreed to have a special meeting to continue to work on details related to a previous motion. I also sent out an agenda 6 days ahead of the meeting. Just yesterday (no more than 48 hours before this meeting), a member notified through email that he would be making a motion to rescind a previous motion that passed and requested that it be placed first thing on the agenda as it would affect the rest of the meeting (if his motion passes). This does not appear to meet any requirements for "notice" but I want to be sure before I rule that a 2/3 vote is necessary for his motion to pass. Thanks very much, K.