silverrabbitstudio Posted November 14, 2011 at 09:35 PM Report Share Posted November 14, 2011 at 09:35 PM I cannot seem to find an answer to this question -A general meeting was held, slate was unopposed and voted by hand. The slate was passed by a majority of those present. A question was raised after the meeting as to whether a quorum was present and if not, was the vote then illegal? A board meeting is looming, no current board member is going to raise the question. How should this be addressed by the membership? Members are allowed to attend the board meetings, however they have no vote unless they are on the board.Should there be a point of order raised, or is there some other method to address this.Several members not on the board want the election set aside for vote at the next meeting where a quorum would be present. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chris Harrison Posted November 14, 2011 at 09:44 PM Report Share Posted November 14, 2011 at 09:44 PM Unless there is clear and convincing proof* that a quorum wasn't present at the time the vote was taken any Point of Order should be ruled Not Well Taken (RONR p. 349). Of course, that ruling is subject to Appeal.*Before you ask RONR doesn't define what would constitute "clear and convincing proof" so it would be up to you all to determine for yourselves. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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