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Allusions to Committee's Deliberations


Josh Martin

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I have some questions about the following sentence: "No one can make allusion in the assembly to what has occurred during the deliberations of the committee, however, unless it is by report of the committee or by unanimous consent." (RONR, 11th ed., pg. 528, lines 8-11)

1.) Does whether this rule applies depend on how open the committee's meeting was? The rule certainly makes sense if the committee met in executive session, but if the committee's meeting was open to all who were interested, what would be the point of the rule?

2.) Does the rule also apply to the report of a board?

3.) Does the "unanimous consent" refer to unanimous consent from the committee or from the assembly?

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1) Yes. To protect the entire assembly, who is there to hear the report of what is agreed to by a majority of the members of the committee, and if they wish a report of the minority. Anything else, such as allusions as to what occurred which is not included in the report(s) is at the sufferance of the assembly.

2) RONR doesn't say it does, but goodness I hope they'd refrain from it.

3) The assembly.

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I have some questions about the following sentence: "No one can make allusion in the assembly to what has occurred during the deliberations of the committee, however, unless it is by report of the committee or by unanimous consent." (RONR, 11th ed., pg. 528, lines 8-11)

1.) Does whether this rule applies depend on how open the committee's meeting was? The rule certainly makes sense if the committee met in executive session, but if the committee's meeting was open to all who were interested, what would be the point of the rule?

2.) Does the rule also apply to the report of a board?

3.) Does the "unanimous consent" refer to unanimous consent from the committee or from the assembly?

You had better ask the General. This sentence has appeared in every edition, virtually unchanged, beginning with the first.

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1.) Does whether this rule applies depend on how open the committee's meeting was? The rule certainly makes sense if the committee met in executive session, but if the committee's meeting was open to all who were interested, what would be the point of the rule?

Even if the meeting was open, I think this should apply. This rule has a variety of effects, including ensuring that any contributions that oppose the committee report must be restated in full at the assembly (which prevents the meeting from becoming the committee members continuing debate on a point of disagreement without context for the benefit of the rest of the assembly who wasn't present), preventing extra weight from being assigned to matters that weren't in the report where there might be context, ("the committee discussed this matter and decided against it"), and generally ensuring that the discussion in the assembly is fair to everyone regardless of whether or not they were present at the committee meeting.

Indeed, the rule is of less use if the committee meets in executive session, since then the members of the committee are bound by the rules of executive session not to disclose what happened.

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