Guest HTL Posted April 11, 2013 at 01:55 AM Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 at 01:55 AM After a ballot count was complete with a majority outcome but other election choices voted for - there was a motion to revise the ballot count result to be unanimous.The motion was seconded and passed by majority - effectively wiping out any record of desenting votes.Is the motion to revise the ballot count to be unanimous even proper? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chris Harrison Posted April 11, 2013 at 02:01 AM Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 at 02:01 AM Such a motion is proper but the vote on the motion would have to be held by ballot (RONR p. 413). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
alanh49 Posted April 11, 2013 at 03:14 AM Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 at 03:14 AM Such a motion is proper but the vote on the motion would have to be held by ballot (RONR p. 413).And it would have to be adopted by a unanimous vote. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Bruce Lages Posted April 11, 2013 at 03:21 AM Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 at 03:21 AM And it would have to be adopted by a unanimous vote.Is there a reference for that requirement? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
alanh49 Posted April 11, 2013 at 04:10 AM Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 at 04:10 AM Is there a reference for that requirement?Do you really need one? How do you make a vote unanimous by anything but a unanimous vote? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David A Foulkes Posted April 11, 2013 at 11:36 AM Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 at 11:36 AM How do you make a vote unanimous by anything but a unanimous vote?I'll take a stab at ...... by majority vote? (based on the p. 413 reference) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dan Honemann Posted April 11, 2013 at 11:47 AM Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 at 11:47 AM I'll take a stab at ...... by majority vote? (based on the p. 413 reference)Nope. No way.A unanimous vote, taken by ballot, is required to make unanimous a vote taken by ballot that was not unanimous.Aside from the obvious reason to require unanimity in such a case, the fact is that unanimity, or unanimous consent, is required to change any members vote after the result has been announced. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David A Foulkes Posted April 11, 2013 at 12:15 PM Report Share Posted April 11, 2013 at 12:15 PM All makes perfect sense, just didn't see the explicit reference, so I figured I'd poke the dozing crocodile. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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