Guest Aguirre Posted October 23, 2014 at 01:23 AM Report Share Posted October 23, 2014 at 01:23 AM Previous question cannot interrupt whoever has the floor, but must someone have the floor to make the motion? For instance, debate-against had expired, but before debate-for began someone moved to previous question. Is this allowable? Or must they have the floor before making the motion? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hieu H. Huynh Posted October 23, 2014 at 01:32 AM Report Share Posted October 23, 2014 at 01:32 AM A member must have the floor to move the previous question. Also, see FAQ #11. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Transpower Posted October 23, 2014 at 01:14 PM Report Share Posted October 23, 2014 at 01:14 PM Also, it must be seconded! See RONR (11th ed.), pp. 22-23 in tinted pages. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted October 23, 2014 at 01:28 PM Report Share Posted October 23, 2014 at 01:28 PM ... and adopted! (to stop debate, that is) with a 2/3 vote. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Richard Brown Posted October 23, 2014 at 01:45 PM Report Share Posted October 23, 2014 at 01:45 PM Previous question cannot interrupt whoever has the floor, but must someone have the floor to make the motion?I think we all agree that, per RONR, someone who wants to move The Previous Question must first be recognized and that the chair can ignore a call for the previous question from someone who has not been recognized. However, playing the devil's advocate for a minute, what if a member moves the previous question without having been recognized, a second member seconds it, and the chair then says, "The Previous Question is moved and seconded. The motion is not debatable. All those in favor of ordering the previous question say Aye", etc, and the assembly does order the previous question by a two thirds vote. Nobody makes a point of order that the mover was not recognized. Since the chair plainly took cognizance that the previous question had been moved and seconded and the assembly thereafter ordered the previous question by a two thirds vote without objection and without anyone making a point of order, has the previous question actually been ordered? Is the vote valid, assuming there are no irregularities other than the fact that the chair did not recognize the mover prior to the motion being made? It seems to me that the situation is much like a motion failing to get a second or like any other breach of procedure that requires a timely point of order: If the chair "accepts" the motion and puts it to a vote even though he never recognized the member to make the motion, its adoption is nonetheless valid unless someone raises a timely point of order. Edited to add: I'm posing the above hypothetical because I have a hunch that this scenario is likely something that actually happened and the original poster is wondering if the action was "legitimate". Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted October 23, 2014 at 02:31 PM Report Share Posted October 23, 2014 at 02:31 PM Since the chair plainly took cognizance that the previous question had been moved and seconded and the assembly thereafter ordered the previous question by a two thirds vote without objection and without anyone making a point of order, has the previous question actually been ordered? Is the vote valid, assuming there are no irregularities other than the fact that the chair did not recognize the mover prior to the motion being made? Yes. A timely point of order is required. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Timothy Posted October 23, 2014 at 02:47 PM Report Share Posted October 23, 2014 at 02:47 PM I think we all agree that, per RONR, someone who wants to move The Previous Question must first be recognized and that the chair can ignore a call for the previous question from someone who has not been recognized. However, playing the devil's advocate for a minute, what if a member moves the previous question without having been recognized, a second member seconds it, and the chair then says, "The Previous Question is moved and seconded. The motion is not debatable. All those in favor of ordering the previous question say Aye", etc, and the assembly does order the previous question by a two thirds vote. Nobody makes a point of order that the mover was not recognized. Since the chair plainly took cognizance that the previous question had been moved and seconded and the assembly thereafter ordered the previous question by a two thirds vote without objection and without anyone making a point of order, has the previous question actually been ordered? Is the vote valid, assuming there are no irregularities other than the fact that the chair did not recognize the mover prior to the motion being made? It seems to me that the situation is much like a motion failing to get a second or like any other breach of procedure that requires a timely point of order: If the chair "accepts" the motion and puts it to a vote even though he never recognized the member to make the motion, its adoption is nonetheless valid unless someone raises a timely point of order. Edited to add: I'm posing the above hypothetical because I have a hunch that this scenario is likely something that actually happened and the original poster is wondering if the action was "legitimate". While we're playing Devil's advocate, would the same be true if the organization has rules about the order in which debate will be handled, such that those who will be recognized to speak are queued up as those in favor and those who are opposed? Might it be possible that accepting the motion for the previous question would be a violation of the bylaws because the person was not in one of the queues? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted October 23, 2014 at 02:49 PM Report Share Posted October 23, 2014 at 02:49 PM While we're playing Devil's advocate, would the same be true if the organization has rules about the order in which debate will be handled, such that those who will be recognized to speak are queued up as those in favor and those who are opposed? Might it be possible that accepting the motion for the previous question would be a violation of the bylaws because the person was not in one of the queues? A timely point of order is required when rules governing debate or assignment of the floor are violated. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gary Novosielski Posted October 23, 2014 at 06:18 PM Report Share Posted October 23, 2014 at 06:18 PM Previous question cannot interrupt whoever has the floor, but must someone have the floor to make the motion? For instance, debate-against had expired, but before debate-for began someone moved to previous question. Is this allowable? Or must they have the floor before making the motion?This type of debate is quite abnormal.If you're following RONR, the maker of a motion has first claim on the floor, to speak in favor of the motion. So debate in favor usually precedes debate against the motion.After debate begins, to the extent possible, and to the extent he knows how the members will argue, the chair should recognize pro- and anti- speakers alternately, so that at any time, both sides have been represented about the same.And--this is my opinion, not General Robert's--once either side has run out of speakers, that's as good a time as any to move the Previous Question. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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