parkourninja Posted June 27, 2015 at 05:56 PM Report Share Posted June 27, 2015 at 05:56 PM If a member voted for herself for president, is it true that the chair should tell the member that they may only vote in the event of a tie? I remember reading in RONR that no member can be forced not to vote on a motion that would be to the contrary of that statement. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Edgar Guest Posted June 27, 2015 at 06:00 PM Report Share Posted June 27, 2015 at 06:00 PM If a member voted for herself for president, is it true that the chair should tell the member that they may only vote in the event of a tie? No. It would be unusual if she didn't vote for herself. There are some limitations on when the presiding officer (i.e.chair or president) should vote. See FAQ #1. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Richard Brown Posted June 27, 2015 at 06:01 PM Report Share Posted June 27, 2015 at 06:01 PM If a member voted for herself for president, is it true that the chair should tell the member that they may only vote in the event of a tie? Are you asking if a member can vote only in the case of a tie?? If that is what you are asking, then the answer is no, a member may always vote, even in cases of a conflict. However, except when voting by ballot, the chair should vote only when his vote will affect the result. He can vote to create a tie as well as to break a tie. Edited to add: A member should abstain in certain cases of a conflict, but cannot be forced to abstain. Voting for oneself is not something that should cause a member to abstain! I remember reading in RONR that no member can be forced not to vote on a motion that would be to the contrary of that statement.I really don't know what you are trying to say or ask by that statement. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
parkourninja Posted June 27, 2015 at 06:13 PM Author Report Share Posted June 27, 2015 at 06:13 PM Are you asking if a member can vote only in the case of a tie?? If that is what you are asking, then the answer is no, a member may always vote, even in cases of a conflict. However, except when voting by ballot, the chair should vote only when his vote will affect the result. He can vote to create a tie as well as to break a tie. Edited to add: A member should abstain in certain cases of a conflict, but cannot be forced to abstain. Voting for oneself is not something that should cause a member to abstain! That's what I thought. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Shmuel Gerber Posted June 28, 2015 at 02:21 AM Report Share Posted June 28, 2015 at 02:21 AM I remember reading in RONR that no member can be forced not to vote on a motion that would be to the contrary of that statement. Maybe you're think of this, from page 407:"No member should vote on a question in which he has a direct personal or pecuniary interest not common to other members of the organization. . . . However, no member can be compelled to refrain from voting in such circumstances." Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Josh Martin Posted June 30, 2015 at 02:28 AM Report Share Posted June 30, 2015 at 02:28 AM Maybe you're think of this, from page 407:"No member should vote on a question in which he has a direct personal or pecuniary interest not common to other members of the organization. . . . However, no member can be compelled to refrain from voting in such circumstances." Since the original question was about a member voting for herself for office, it's worth noting that RONR also says the following: "The rule on abstaining from voting on a question of direct personal interest does not mean that a member should not vote for himself for an office or other position to which members generally are eligible" (RONR, 11th ed., pgs. 407-408) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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