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Simultaneous Committee Function


Guest TerryW

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Can a nine-member Board of Directors of a Property Owners Association appointment itself (the nine Directors) as a standing committee (Architectural Control Committee) and conduct the Board of Directors' Meetings (noticed as "Board of Directors Workshops) simultaneously as to the subcommittee (Architectural Control Committee)? During the Board of Directors Workshop Meeting one of the Directors who is appointed as the Chairman of the Architectural Control Committee reports what Requests for Architectural Changes he has received and approved or disapproved. No discussion or vote is taken on the report or any of the individual Architectural Requests. Our Association Covenants states that only the Architectural Control Committee can approve or disapprove any Association Member's Architectural Change Request. The Covenants also state we will follow Robert's Rules of Order. The way the Board of Directors are conducting this "simultaneous" function (two committees in one) it boils down to one person deciding whether a particular Architectural Change will be approved or disapproved. Is this "simultaneous" function legitimate under Robert's Rules of Order?

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Is this "simultaneous" function legitimate under Robert's Rules of Order?

In general:

As long as the meeting is properly noticed (i.e., the authorized caller of meetings of the body in question has called the meeting properly, thus notifying 100% of the members of that body, within a reasonable time frame, of the hour and location of said meeting), then the answer is YES.

Put another way:

• If there were 2 committees;

• If the two committees were composed of the identical set of members (i.e. 100% overlap);

• If the first committee were to call its meeting, and the second committee were to call its meeting;

• If the date, hour, and location of BOTH meetings cited the exact same data (e.g., "3:00 pm on December 7, 2010, in the club house");

• Then, no rule of Robert's Rules of Order has been violated. (Yet.)

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In general:

As long as the meeting is properly noticed (i.e., the authorized caller of meetings of the body in question has called the meeting properly, thus notifying 100% of the members of that body, within a reasonable time frame, of the hour and location of said meeting), then the answer is YES.

Put another way:

• If there were 2 committees;

• If the two committees were composed of the identical set of members (i.e. 100% overlap);

• If the first committee were to call its meeting, and the second committee were to call its meeting;

• If the date, hour, and location of BOTH meetings cited the exact same data (e.g., "3:00 pm on December 7, 2010, in the club house");

• Then, no rule of Robert's Rules of Order has been violated. (Yet.)

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In general:

As long as the meeting is properly noticed (i.e., the authorized caller of meetings of the body in question has called the meeting properly, thus notifying 100% of the members of that body, within a reasonable time frame, of the hour and location of said meeting), then the answer is YES.

Put another way:

• If there were 2 committees;

• If the two committees were composed of the identical set of members (i.e. 100% overlap);

• If the first committee were to call its meeting, and the second committee were to call its meeting;

• If the date, hour, and location of BOTH meetings cited the exact same data (e.g., "3:00 pm on December 7, 2010, in the club house");

• Then, no rule of Robert's Rules of Order has been violated. (Yet.)

... Just reading along, I never expected the story to end so abruptly.

-- GcT

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