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"Calling for the Question" and postponing a vote


Bobbibakker

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If a motion has been made and now open to the general membership for discussion can one member "Call for the Question" and discussion stop and the vote on the matter be taken?  Where might I find this in RRO?  Debate on this given motion was "hot" and there was not enough time to complete the meeting before the concurring dinner function began.  So someone "called for the question" and we were told to vote right then and there. 

 

I have asked this question previously, but am looking for some back up with regard on how it should have been handled......(this pertains to the above "facts" of the previous question)  A membership application was presented, there was a letter of opposition presented and the applicant was advised she could see the letter and respond.  She did so.  A letter was directed back to the club, but at the meeting no one had a hard copy and there were two individuals who had computers, but could not get the document to download to be read.  The opposition letter was made available and presented, but not the response letter.  Should the motion have been withdrawn and the issue postponed or just the issue/vote postponed until the next regular meeting to allow the response letter to be presented?  It just seems biased.   

 

Thank you!

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If a motion has been made and now open to the general membership for discussion can one member "Call for the Question" and discussion stop and the vote on the matter be taken?  Where might I find this in RRO?  Debate on this given motion was "hot" and there was not enough time to complete the meeting before the concurring dinner function began.  So someone "called for the question" and we were told to vote right then and there. 

 

The Previous Question requires a 2/3 vote for adoption. It cannot be demanded by a single member. The chair should have called for a vote on the Previous Question. If it was defeated, then debate could continue.

 

A membership application was presented, there was a letter of opposition presented and the applicant was advised she could see the letter and respond.  She did so.  A letter was directed back to the club, but at the meeting no one had a hard copy and there were two individuals who had computers, but could not get the document to download to be read.  The opposition letter was made available and presented, but not the response letter.  Should the motion have been withdrawn and the issue postponed or just the issue/vote postponed until the next regular meeting to allow the response letter to be presented?  It just seems biased.   

 

The member who made the motion could have withdrawn it with the consent of the assembly, but then there would be nothing left to postpone.

 

Alternately, a member could have moved to postpone the motion to the next meeting. The motion to Postpone to a Certain Time requires a second, is debatable and amendable, and requires a majority vote for adoption.

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As described by BobbiB, this may have been one of those rare occasions where a motion to Table would have been appropriate.  If adopted  --  no debate, majority vote, goes real fast  --  everybody could go to dinner and then come back to the meeting (which had been in recess for dinner).  At the meating anyone could move to take the motion from the table  --  no debate, majority vote, goes real fast  --  and if adopted, the group would pick up right where they left off.

 

Never mind all that detail, as frar as proper procedure goes, about purloined letters and the like.

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If adopted  --  no debate, majority vote, goes real fast  --  everybody could go to dinner and then come back to the meeting (which had been in recess for dinner). 

 

I got the impression that, once everyone started eating, the meeting was (essentially) over.

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Could be... in which case the "abandoned" motion  --  on the floor when the meeting effectivley adjourned for dinner  --  would (or should) come up automatically by introduction by the chairman as Unfinished Business (another rather rare event) at the next meeting.

 

It wasn't clear to me from BobbiB's original posting whether  --  the last line first paragraph of the posting  --   the assembly had actually voted on the issue after being told (improperly) that they "had to ... then and there".   That would make a difference in my speculations. If the vote did take place, and dinner followed immediately, that that is the end of it for the current session.

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As described by BobbiB, this may have been one of those rare occasions where a motion to Table would have been appropriate.  If adopted  --  no debate, majority vote, goes real fast  --  everybody could go to dinner and then come back to the meeting (which had been in recess for dinner).  At the meating anyone could move to take the motion from the table  --  no debate, majority vote, goes real fast  --  and if adopted, the group would pick up right where they left off.

 

Never mind all that detail, as frar as proper procedure goes, about purloined letters and the like.

 

Why not simply a motion to Recess then, which is even faster?

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Why not simply a motion to Recess then, which is even faster?

 

While the line is blurred as to when a recess lasts so long as to warrant adjournment, I think a "dinner function" probably crosses that line. It's one thing to break for lunch but I suspect that, after dinner, most members will head for home. Or the nearest bar. I know I would. I like to think of it as "unfinished business".

 

 

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If a motion has been made and now open to the general membership for discussion can one member "Call for the Question" and discussion stop and the vote on the matter be taken?  Where might I find this in RRO?  Debate on this given motion was "hot" and there was not enough time to complete the meeting before the concurring dinner function began.  So someone "called for the question" and we were told to vote right then and there. 

 

I have asked this question previously, but am looking for some back up with regard on how it should have been handled......(this pertains to the above "facts" of the previous question)  A membership application was presented, there was a letter of opposition presented and the applicant was advised she could see the letter and respond.  She did so.  A letter was directed back to the club, but at the meeting no one had a hard copy and there were two individuals who had computers, but could not get the document to download to be read.  The opposition letter was made available and presented, but not the response letter.  Should the motion have been withdrawn and the issue postponed or just the issue/vote postponed until the next regular meeting to allow the response letter to be presented?  It just seems biased.   

 

Thank you!

A second part of this question, can the chair "Call the Question" on their own acting as one of the board members to stop the debate. I realize they can ask if the group is ready for a call the question move, but can the chair call it on their own?

 

Thanks

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If this is a "small" (12 or less, or so) Board, sure since he is much a member as anybody else.  It is probably not too wise, but it is proper.

 

But the motion still has to be seconded and adopted by 2/3 in order for debate to stop.  The president has no special rights or powers in this regard.

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OK, let me see if I have this straight. On small boards the requirement for a second on motions is waved for all motions,but a 2/3 votes is still required for approval of the motion? So a "call the question" motion made by the Chair wouldn't require a second, but would require a 2/3 approval vote for adoption prior to a vote on the primary motion under discussion by the board?

 

Thanks

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OK, let me see if I have this straight. On small boards the requirement for a second on motions is waved for all motions,but a 2/3 votes is still required for approval of the motion? So a "call the question" motion made by the Chair wouldn't require a second, but would require a 2/3 approval vote for adoption prior to a vote on the primary motion under discussion by the board?

 

Yes to both questions.

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