Seconding a Motion

[Guest 52]

I have what seems like a simple question, but I cannot find an answer. I am a member of a homeowner's association which allows proxies. One member owns more than one home. That member intends to give another a proxy to vote for one of his homes while retaining for himself the right to vote the others.

Suppose this member makes a motion which requires a second. May the holder of the proxy then second that motion?

[Kim Goldsworthy]

Suppose this member makes a motion which requires a second. May the holder of the proxy then second that motion?

If Robert's Rules of Order applies, then you need two members (not one person holding more than one proxy) to accomplish this.

One to make a motion; one to second the motion.

Robert's Rules of Order does not allow a single person to second his own motion.

Any rules about proxies' usage must come from elsewhere, since Robert's Rules of Order forbids proxies, and so The Book won't have a lot of detail on things which it forbids.

[Guest HWM]

you need two members (not one person holding more than one proxy) to accomplish this.

One to make a motion; one to second the motion. Robert's Rules of Order does not allow a single person to second his own motion.

I think the scenario presented is a little trickier. There are, indeed, two persons involved, one is the multi-home homeowner and the other is the holder of his proxy. But since the purpose of a proxy is to enable someone who is present to act on behalf of someone who is absent, I wonder if the presence of the proxy grantor renders the proxy moot. Clearly this isn't addressed by RONR but it looks like this tactic is fishy. And pointless since, if this guy can't find another member to second his motion, it's doomed to failure even if it somehow gets considered.

[Guest F.R.Pond]

If Robert's Rules of Order applies, then you need two members (not one person holding more than one proxy) to accomplish this.

One to make a motion; one to second the motion.

Robert's Rules of Order does not allow a single person to second his own motion.

Which is not to confuse "members" with "owners" (at least in the case of a homeowners' association [HOA]) (and I am not implying that Mr. Goldsworthy is confusing the two).

Since an "owner" may be a husband and wife or business partners, they would (typically) all be "members" of the Association but (typically) be considered collectively one "owner," and as such, entitled to only one vote (per property owned). It is my understanding that as "members," a wife could propose a motion and her husband could second the motion (if he knew what was good for himself).

Admittedly, this is not the same as proxy holders, but as a member of a HOA, I thought it pertinent.

[Josh Martin]

It is my understanding that as "members," a wife could propose a motion and her husband could second the motion

In your example - maybe, maybe not. When things stray from the "one member, one vote" rule in RONR, an assembly's really on its own in interpreting how that works.

The poster should read FAQ #10 and RONR, 10th ed., pgs. 570-573 for some Principles of Interpretation for Bylaws to help answer his question.