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Grammatical Errors


KloakandDaggerNupe

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No, yes (in the order you asked).  Any change to the words (and punctuation for the most part - excepting spelling)  to bylaws must go through the standard amendment process.  No individual, no matter how well intentioned, can make unilateral changes.  "Unchanged meaning" is frequently in the eye of the beholder.  Don't risk a big argument later on.

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1 hour ago, KloakandDaggerNupe said:

Is it possible to make needed corrections of grammatical errors in the Bylaws without having each correction voted on by 2/3 majority?  Is it even necessary for these corrections to be voted on at all if the underlying meaning of the Bylaw is not altered?

Not if your bylaws require a two-thirds vote for their amendment, no.

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2 hours ago, KloakandDaggerNupe said:

Is it possible to make needed corrections of grammatical errors in the Bylaws without having each correction voted on by 2/3 majority?  Is it even necessary for these corrections to be voted on at all if the underlying meaning of the Bylaw is not altered?

No, the procedure for amending the language of the bylaws must be followed, whatever the reason for the change.

The only exception is that when multiple sections are inserted, the secretary may be authorized to renumber the sections to preserve the overall order.  Note well that this is not a change in the language.

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6 hours ago, KloakandDaggerNupe said:

Is it possible to make needed corrections of grammatical errors in the Bylaws without having each correction voted on by 2/3 majority?  Is it even necessary for these corrections to be voted on at all if the underlying meaning of the Bylaw is not altered?

You could adopt a proviso permitting corrections of this type when you first approve the bylaws or a revision.  If these corrections are already in the approved bylaws, it would be necessary to correct these changes by mending the bylaws.  

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