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Accumulating votes to secure approval


Guest Elizabeth

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Our condominium bylaws say that we must have a 75% of the vote of the owners to amend the bylaws. The board wants to change this number to 66 2/3%. In order to assure that they get the approval from 75% of the owners, they are accumulating the votes for five years. I say #1, that this is not the proper voting procedure; and #2, it is not fair because an owner could sell their unit and there could be two votes per unit, or more.

The bylaws say: At any meeting of the members, the owner of each unit shall be entitled to case one vote of each unit he own, which shall not be cumulative.

Can you please give me your interpretation? We do follow RR.

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Mr. Stackpole, there are no proxy votes in this case. They mailed out the original yes/no ballot five years ago. The next year they sent out the same ballot to the owners that didn't vote yes the first time. Etc., for FIVE YEARS. And they're adding each years votes to get the 75%.

We have an attorney on the board that came up with this voting procedure.

No, I don't think they're following RONR, but when I plead my case, I would like to know that I am write in saying this is against RONR.

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Our bylaws do allow absentee voting for our annual meeting, and in that case a proxy form is mailed out with the notice of the annual meeting.

In this incidence, a proxy was not mailed out. What they are doing is pleading with those who did not give a favorable vote the first year every year for five years thereafter until they finally talk 75% of the owners to vote yes. I have never heard of accumulating votes for five years for any purpose in this condo except now to change the bylaws. Heck, I've never heard of accumulating votes for five years for any situation.

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The board appears to be allowing people to vote twice, which is obviously another improper action.

I'm afraid there is a bit of confusion here -- absentee voting and proxy voting are not at all the same thing and without reading your bylaws carefully none of here can say what is going on for sure. And we are not in the bylaws business here -- RONR is quite enough, thanks.

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Thanks for your help. I will check into these references you have given me. I know If I stood before the board and argued this point, which I intend to do, 6 of the 7 would have NO CLUE what RR is nor would they know what the bylaws say.

They aren't allowing owners to vote twice. They are just trying to persuade them to vote yes one time, and if it takes five years for them to persuade them and they finally get enough yes votes, then the fifth year they add up all the yes votes and hope they have 75%, then they can change the by laws to say 66 2/3.

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Our condominium bylaws say that we must have a 75% of the vote of the owners to amend the bylaws. The board wants to change this number to 66 2/3%. In order to assure that they get the approval from 75% of the owners, they are accumulating the votes for five years. I say #1, that this is not the proper voting procedure; and #2, it is not fair because an owner could sell their unit and there could be two votes per unit, or more.

The bylaws say: At any meeting of the members, the owner of each unit shall be entitled to case one vote of each unit he own, which shall not be cumulative.

Can you please give me your interpretation? We do follow RR.

The interpretation of your Bylaws is up to your society (see RONR, 11th ed., pgs. 588-591 for some Principles of Interpretation), but this is certainly not proper under RONR. See RONR, 11th ed., pgs. 408-409.

One of the questions to look into is whether the board has the authority to, essentially, hold the polls open for 5 years!

Well, that would be an interesting question, but it seems that what is happening is far more problematic. It seems the board is not just keeping the polls open - rather, the polls were closed after the initial vote and are then reopened each year, and then only members who did not vote yes are asked if they wish to change their vote (or cast a vote, presumably, for members who had abstained).

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Right, I forgot about that. Still 10 or 11 days is a tad more reasonable than five years . . .

But that's only a question of degree, not of kind.

There is, for example, no inherent time limit when it comes to States ratifying (i.e. voting for) a proposed amendment to the Constitution (and at least one such amendment is still theoretically open for ratification after more than a century).

r7XbM4

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But that's only a question of degree, not of kind.

There is, for example, no inherent time limit when it comes to States ratifying (i.e. voting for) a proposed amendment to the Constitution (and at least one such amendment is still theoretically open for ratification after more than a century).

r7XbM4

None of this has anything whatsoever to do with Robert's Rules.

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