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Assume that a society's parliamentary authority is RONR, that the constitution requires a notice for meeting 14 to 60 days beforehand, and that the bylaws requires a notice for meetings 10 to 50 days beforehand. 1. Is a notice valid if sent 55 days beforehand? 2. Is a notice valid if sent 12 days beforehand? 3. Do both requirements have to be met, or does it suffice to only meet the constitution's requirements? (E.g., suppose there were no overlap, would 2 notices have to be sent?) Rather than answer that the society has to vote to interpret their rules, assume that you are a member and that such a vote is pending; how would you debate and vote? Thanks!
yoram kahana Sat 6/1/2019 4:30 PM Our Association's bylaw says this about giving notice for a meeting: "Section 9.4. Notice of Meetings. Notice of any Membership Meeting, specifying the date, time and location thereof, shall be given to each member by written notice sent by first class mail or by electronic transmission (including facsimile, e-mail and text message) at least ten days in advance. " The secretary sent out an email notice to all members , but only seven days before the meeting. When challenged, the excuse was that the meeting was included in the two week calendar that goes out, also by email, to all members. This calendar went out two weeks before the meeting date. The calendar lists all our activities for a two week period,on one page, divided in 14, each day in a box, with the briefest mention of each activity [space...]. The box for May 10 had: --------------------------------------------- May 10 11 AM : Candidates' Forum ( Association's Office) 1 PM Lunch ( Association's Office) ------------------------------------------------------------- Was this calendar listing a proper notice as required by the bylaw? Thank you Yoram yoram kahana Sat 6/1/2019 4:30 PM
I am the incorporator and founder of our guild which was established 8 years ago. Our bylaws require Ballots to be sent out and members allowed 30 days to vote. The deadline is specified on the ballot. The bylaws also allow 10% of the membership to request amendments to the bylaws by written request. A group of members wanting to kill our guild showed up at a regular meeting and without prior notice made a motion dissolve the guild. They passed out pieces of paper for the members in attendance to vote whether they want to put out a ballot to dissolve the guild. 10% of our membership is 4 and there was about 20 members at the meeting. They got their four votes and started passing out ballots and emailed ballots to all members the next day. They already had a ballot made up and passed them out at the meeting. The ballot contained 3 items ... see attached Subsequent discussion suggested members wanted a meeting to hear all sides of this issue so a meeting special meeting was held. At that meeting I called a point of order for the ongoing breach of a ballot to dissolve the guild that was done without advance notice included it the meeting which it was done. I cited Missouri Revised Statute Chapter 355.251 and Roberts Rule of Order Article 8 section 47 as support for my point...see attachment The point was well taken and it was ruled that the ballot is null and void. I have been told the members that started this action are now getting a lawyer? I am very interested in hearing any observations? Were they out of order to bring that to a meeting unannounced? Are my references correct as to why they can't do that? Am I the only one who sees the wording on the ballot is clearly biased? Since to Point of Order ruling went unchallenged isn't everything else moot? Thank you