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Our corporate bylaws have no provision for what constitutes a quorum at a meeting for members. At our AGM last year the board called a quorum as members present. Since then the board has read in Robert's rules that a quorum should be a majority of the members. Our membership is under 100. At a recent special meeting (requisitioned by the members) of members for a discussion only the board declared that a quorum was not present and the mtg should be adjourned to another day and time, but an informal discussion could take place. However, the members pushed back and said precedence had been set by the AGM of allowing a quorum of members present. So the board, not wanting to cause a scene allowed the meeting to move forward. Is the Board wrong for allowing the meeting to formally continue, or are the members correct that a prescidence has been set.? It was also noted that there are other parliamentary rules for conducting mtg that have a different take on quorum.