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I am a little rusty on Roberts Rules, it has been awhile. At a recent meeting a motion was made to offer a resolution for consideration. It was duly seconded. However, no vote was taken on the acceptance of the motion. Someone did ask about a vote. They were told not needed. I think the concern was that we would be agreeing with the resolution. Our normal process is to have three readings of the resolution, then debating and voting on it. So, the question; is this a valid motion? My thought is that a vote was needed to advance the resolution through the normal process and is not acceptance of the resolution.
Guest posted a topic in General DiscussionSome members of a co-op "may not exercise any right to vote" because they are in arrears with a call on their shares. This is provided for under the co-op's rules (or by-laws) and the governing legislation for co-operatives. The co-op's rules define quorum as “50% of the members entitled to vote”. How do we calculate quorum? There are 40 members. Eight are in arrears and therefore may not exercise the right to vote at the next meeting. Are the eight members counted? i.e. is it 50% of 40? Or 50% of 32? One view is that the members in arrears are entitled to vote (as members) even though they have lost "the right to vote" at this particular meeting. They would therefore still be counted in calculating quorum. Another view is that this is semantics: the term "may not exercise any right to vote" is the same as "not entitled to vote". The eight members would therefore not be counted in calculating quorum. Thanks for your help.