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The following amendment has been proposed to our organization's Bylaws Committee: "A resolution in writing signed by all Directors of the Association from time to time entitled to vote on that resolution shall be as valid as if the same had been passed at a meeting of the Board." I have to say that, on the face of it, this seems to me to run contrary to the whole concept of a "deliberative" assembly, if in fact deliberation becomes optional. Am I being paranoid, or would the above amendment be open to abuse? Louise