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What governs the reconvening of an adjourned special meeting when no specific date or time was set at the adjournment only the President's statement she would give a full ten day notice? Can the President in the absence of a motion to adjourn or motion to fix time to adjourn, exercise a perogative to reconvene with under 48 hour notice? Is she excused from providing the normal notice time of ten days for non-emergency? If notice is given which does not allow all members the chance to attend or some members receive notice after the meeting has taken place, is it an illegal meeting?
Guest posted a topic in General DiscussionHello, I raised issues a couple days ago associated with confusion in a meeting, and got a great deal of helpful feedback. As I am still an RONR newbie, I'd appreciate a bit more feedback. Our group will meet again in a couple of days, and one or more members are likely to make a motion to amend a prior motion (I think this most likely), or to rescind the prior motion that was voted on at our last meeting, reopen discussion, and make a new motion on the basis of our discussion. I have two questions. First, given that the main motion from our meeting has now been voted on (and has now passed), can people move to amend or to rescind that original motion? My reading of RONR makes me think that amend is what is wanted, and that this is allowed, and I'm frankly confused about whether rescind is properly applicable to this situation or not. What is desired is an amendment to the motion - not a striking of the motion. What had folks all confused before was whether or not to suggest an amendment, and precisely what to suggest, but a substantial portion of the main motion was entirely acceptable to the group (unanimously). My question is how we best get to the place where an amendment could be proposed and discussed, allowing for appropriate discussion and voting. Second, what does prior notice constitute? We are using a meeting time on Tuesday that had been reserved in case it was needed for this topic, but no motion to amend or rescind has been made in our meeting this past Thursday - I am only aware of the intention for such a motion to be brought forward in our Tuesday meeting. Should my call for the meeting include "notice" that a motion to amend or to rescind may be forthcoming, and does that constitute "notice" - or is this is case where "notice" does not apply, as nothing was raised while we were still meeting together? I'm not worried about 2/3 vs simple majority - but more just trying to understand all this stuff. I can see that "notice" helps prepare the group as a whole, so it can be more than merely making it easier for a motion to pass. So I am most interested also in what you folks would consider helpful for people coming into this meeting. I think most people are aware that there is interest in an amendment, with the exception of a few people who were not in the original meeting, but will be in this Tuesday's meeting. Thank you in advance for your clarifications!!
Guest posted a topic in General DiscussionA Superintendant is "sneaking" her way onto separate Elementary & Middle School PTO mtgs to propose year-round school calendar and/or modified calendar that will effect the entire school district. The mtgs are typically filled with pto board members only. When the Superintendant is questioned on how the public and/or school dristrict was notified about the special agenda item for the meeting, while present at said meeting. The response is none. The same response comes from members of the PTO. Is it ok, to not give notice to the public of such a meetings? The Superintendant has never been present in either PTO mtgs. for the past 3 years. Yet wants this subject to go to the school board for a vote on November, 9th. I know for a fact the Elementary PTO bylaws are governed by the RONR