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A NOTICE was given about a special meeting. It was not given properly. The Bylaws say, among other things, "ten days". The notice was given seven days before the meeting. This validity question is not about the meeting itself- nothing was discussed or voted on. It was a forum for candidates for office to address the members/voters and answer questions. However, the Secretary announced that this special meeting will be eligible to be counted as one of five general meetings that each member must attend a year, to maintain active status. The tally will be held later in the year, so while the meeting is over and done, the matter is still very much open. A member raised an objection a few weeks after the meeting. He pointed out that with improperly given notice, the meeting is not valid, and cannot be counted. The reply: You did not object at the start of the meeting. You signed the attendance sheet. "Gotcha". This seems to be nonsense. A. Any other member who did not attend the meeting, and did not sign, may raise a valid objection , according to this theory? B. Also, if the objection is not to holding the (improperly noticed ) meeting, but to using it for counting purposes at a much later date, why can't a member who did attend the meeting raise the ( valid) objection after the end of the meeting but before the counting ? Or does "gotcha" rule? Thank you. Yoram