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I have a question. We have an advisory board meeting for 4-H shooting sports. a discussion was brought up about membership dues and fees at a shooting range. All of the board was present. A motion was made to keep the dues the same and make the advanced shooters pay their dues at the shooting range. It was 2nd, voted on and passed with 100% voting for it. later on the meeting was adjourned. Now some of the members want to change the rule that was voted on even though it was voted on and passed. Can this be done in a special meeting? It comes down to that some of the members were scared to voice their opinion and voted with the group, now those members want to speak up. I am not 100% familiar with RROO but trying to learn more as I go

A vote was called and ruled upon based with a majority vote. Now a member of the majority has resigned. Can the replacement member make a motion (maybe under new businesses) to revoke the past vote? Or does it need to be a sitting member of the majority from the existing vote.

Robert's Rules state that once the party has been notified a vote was taken on a resignation, the motion can not be amended or rescinded. If it comes back that the motion voted on contained wrong information and the party was notified before the mistake was found, does that mean a new vote must take place in order to pass the motion with the correct information? Specifically, I was notified my resignation was approved by the board. However, the board approved my retirement, not my resignation as the notification stated. Does that mean in order to approve my resignation (resignation and retirement are voted on separately with our board) the board must take another vote? The official date of acceptance will be the date of the revote, I assume?

If a vote passed, then after people realized we didn’t have quorum, is there a rule that we have to revote or can the vote stay because no one called for a quorum count?

If a motion has failed by a no vote, can a revote at the next meeting take place by making another motion for the vote?

Our organization's bylaws provide that Voting Day is at the May General Meeting and that "Members may cast their ballot in person or in advance." My question is what happens if no candidate receives a majority for a role? Assuming we have a quorum present, do we just re-vote at the meeting until someone is elected? (i.e. if absentee votes would, perforce, only be included in the first round.)

We had a motion to change the club by-laws, which was brought for a vote of the general membership at our annual meeting. The vote was conducted as a show of hands. The chairperson (club president) explained and spoke in favor of the amendment, and invited others to speak, for or against, and to ask questions. Several people did so. During the discussion, a point of order was raised questioning whether we had a quorum, and it was determined that we did. The chairperson voted, visibly, during the show of hands. The vote passed by a significant margin, and therefore the by-law change passed and was adopted and implemented. About a week afterwards, one of the members who both spoke and voted against the amendment sent the board an email saying that she had researched Robert's Rules, and that the fact that the chairperson voted and was not neutral was not proper, and that therefore the vote should be invalidated/voided. So - given that this was a procedural error, but was not objected to immediately as a point of order during the meeting, what do we do now? Possibilities being discussed: 1) The procedural error invalidates the vote and makes it as if it never happened, everything is changed back to the way it was before the vote. A new vote can be help at the next annual meeting (next year). 2) The procedural error does not invalidate the vote, the changes stand. 3) The board votes to determine if the changes stand or not (the by-law changes require a vote of the general membership). Any thoughts or suggestions would be greatly appreciated! Ruth

Greetings, We are a condominium association in Oregon. All unit owners make up our membership, and we have a board of directors for regular monthly meetings. Every April, we have an annual meeting of all members, at which we vote in new Directors and other business (and eat dinner!). Our bylaws state that we must have, whether present or by proxy, 50% of our general members in order to have a quorum, and that a vote requires 50% of all members (not just 50% of those in attendance) to pass. In our annual meeting last month, we had 57%, so we had a quorum. The meeting notice included an item of business, which I'll just call the "IRS Resolution," and the proxy ballots provided a place to indicate Yes or No for this vote, although nowhere did it provide specifics of what the resolution was. As a result of this omission, many of the members who returned proxy ballots simply did not vote either way for the IRS Resolution (ie abstention). During the annual meeting, therefore, only 47% of the members voted for (or against) the resolution, and it failed. Here's where this gets interesting, at least to my point of view. This IRS resolution is tax-related, and something of a "no-brainer", meaning everyone should have wanted it to pass. The entire room was shocked. We were trying to figure out whether we could run it through another ballot vote, but our pre-prepared ballots didn't include the IRS Resolution after the first ballot cycle, having assumed the question would be settled easily. One of our members, a retired lawyer and armchair parliamentarian, rose and addressed the chair: "I move to adopt the resolution by unanimous consent." And so it was adopted with no audible objections. My questions: If the motion failed the first ballot due to insufficient votes, is the issue considered "settled"? - do the Nays have it (and win)?, or by failing due to lack of majority does it remain a pending question? In the case that it is a settled question, can it then be moved to reconsider the vote, when it is obvious that a significant group of the voters (those who voted by proxy ballot) are not present to persist their votes? (This assumes there was a voter who voted "Nay", so they have standing to raise the motion to reconsider. [and isn't this an interesting idea, that someone should vote Nay in order to ensure they have standing to raise the motion to reconsider, should it prove necessary?]) In the case that it is not a settled question, is it acceptable to pass the motion by unanimous consent? Doesn't that disenfranchise those who voted by proxy ballot, as they are not present to object? [For all we knew at the time, the proxy ballots could have held a significant "Nay" vote.] I hope that I have provided the requisite information, but stand ready to answer any questions as may be necessary for clarification. Thank you for your kind assistance, Ken Tyrrell

In a paper ballot, the vote ends up in a a tie. Do you again revote until a majority vote is accomplished? It seems that a majority is not reached to either pass or fail the issue in the event of a tie. Nobody wins and nobody losses.

Our board had a vote last night and we voted for a particular vendor to supply us with their product. The day after the official vote, several members started noticing that they were not clear on the entire product the vendor was suppling, and feel they might have been misled. It was presented to the President that the board wants to revisit the offers from both vendors (now knowing the true details) and revote on offering the business. The President says it is not too late, because he verbally called the winning vendor that night and notified them they were awarded the business. Can we in fact as a board if we have the majority, to revisit the vote and vote accordingly even though the "winning" vendor has been notified? There has been nothing signed to date. Please help