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I have a question in regard to a "gentleman’s agreement" that is in place as an unspoken policy within my city council. There was a precedence set several years ago that if a council member was not able to be at a council meeting the mayor could remove an item from the agenda with no vote from the rest of the council. I hope the experts would be able to give me some idea if this is "proper" procedure? Any information would be great. Included is a hyperlink to the meeting in question 17:38 is where the topic is spoken about. You will also hear from our city attorney that says this policy is in our cities code but it is not written in it? http://cityview.springfieldmo.gov/city-council-meeting-march-9-2015/