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We have a relatively small civic association 501(c)4 and are having upcoming elections for board positions. One member is soliciting new memberships and asking that the new members vote via write-in for him. He is even supplying them with ballots that he created. We have nothing in our bylaws, other than the indication that members in good standing are eligible to vote, but we have a history of denying voting rights to those who come to the election meeting and fill out a member application and pay the annual dues. In other words, we have previously not allowed a brand new member to vote. Help

We have a situation where someone nominated for an office is trying to drop out of a two person election in order to force the election of the other member. This has enraged other members believing that when the nominations were closed that the person who is intending to drop out to manipulate the election was willing to serve and would easily be elected, thus there were no further nominations and were closed per our By-laws. Also per our by-laws nominations were closed a month ago, with no provision for re-opening. Those who are outraged by the threat of this nominee to drop out of the race, in order to give the election to the other person who many people do not get along with has caused great concern and conflict. The two members involved have publicly told others there is nothing anyone can do about it and if members try to do something about it, the one if not elected will sue the company. Those who are outraged have held a caucus and are planning to write-in another name. If I understand ROR correctly, since our by-laws do not cover this action, once the person accepted the nomination and was present during the nomination process, that person remains on the ballot regardless of what they say about trying to decline. I saw someone in this forum has stated that a person once nominated "can not un-nominate themselves". Therefore, there is a ballot and not an election the member by being unopposed and because there is a ballot election, a write-in is possible. Is that correct? As one of the parliamentarians I have been asked by both sides what is possible and what is not.

An organization to which I belong is imploding. However, it seems that many of the current members of the board who are up for re-election are allowing their names to stand, despite the lack of confidence the general membership has in their abilities to run what's left of the organization. Nominations from the floor are permitted, provided prior written consent of the nominee is obtained. Write-in candidates are also permitted (at least, there's nothing in the bylaws that precludes them). My question is: Are write-in candidates the same as a nomination from the floor -- i.e. would the "prior written consent" for a nomination from the floor also be required for a write-in candidate, or are the two creatures distinct in RONR?

The bylaws of an organization to which I belong closes nominations three months prior to the AGM and does not allow for nominations from the floor. The current members of the board are tired and could use some fresh voices and energy. Would write-in votes on the ballots be considered valid, even though the assembly as a whole would not have been aware of them? Oh - one more point: Traditionally, elections are held by marking "yes" or "no" beside each name, with the candidates receiving more "yes" votes being elected. Does this practice (which I have not been able to find in the bylaws anywhere) complicate any possible write-in votes?

Is a 'ballot' distributed in advance to members with pre-printed choices (not by the secretary) valid and can it be considered a write-in ballot even though those who used it didn't actually write it in themselves? We have had an election coup orchestrated by a group who created an amended ballot by stapling this 'write-in' section and distributed it to a select group of members.

Our by laws do not mention "write-in's" for voting. it does says a person can only be nominated for one postion,and can only hold one postion. There is a question between nominated and running for an office and the definition of write in. I was under the impression that write-in's were for open slots(no one nominated or running) and if a person was on the ballot for a postion already they would not be a write in for a second postion. Please could anyone clarify this. Thank You

The write-in candidate received 80% of the vote and was declared the winner on Voting Day by the Election Chair and Presiding Officer. There were three times the quorum required. The vote 'takes effect' in a few weeks, at the final meeting of the year. The side that lost wants to throw out the write-in candidate because the official ballot - one candidate per office using the outdated approve/ disapprove method, but no space for a write-in - was 'altered' according to them by adding a few typewritten lines in the tiny space available: "I vote for the following write-in candidates: President: Mary; Vice-President: Julie, etc. Do write-ins have to be handwritten?