Guest Frank Posted October 23, 2011 at 12:51 PM Report Share Posted October 23, 2011 at 12:51 PM If the assembly votes to limits a members discussion to 3 minutes. Wouldn't it be proper if the same member could not speak again on the same topic until all the other members who were given the opportunity have spoken? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tim Wynn Posted October 23, 2011 at 01:24 PM Report Share Posted October 23, 2011 at 01:24 PM If the assembly votes to limits a members discussion to 3 minutes. Wouldn't it be proper if the same member could not speak again on the same topic until all the other members who were given the opportunity have spoken?Debate cannot be limited for only a specific member. See RONR (11th ed.), p. 264, ll. 6-13. A member cannot speak a second time on the same question on the same day, until every member who wishes to has had an opportunity to speak on it. See RONR (11th ed.), p. 389, ll. 25-28. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
alanh49 Posted October 23, 2011 at 01:29 PM Report Share Posted October 23, 2011 at 01:29 PM If the assembly votes to limits a members discussion to 3 minutes. Wouldn't it be proper if the same member could not speak again on the same topic until all the other members who were given the opportunity have spoken?A motion to limit a member to 3 minutes in out of order unless a part of a disciplinary proceedings* but a motion to limit all member to 3 minutes each is just fine either as subsidiary to limit or extend limits of debate or as a special rule of order. In either case the motion would only effect how long one could speak not when or how often.*by a part of a disciplinary proceedings I mean at the end of as the punishment imposed not during. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rob Elsman Posted October 23, 2011 at 06:54 PM Report Share Posted October 23, 2011 at 06:54 PM If the assembly votes to limits a members discussion to 3 minutes. Wouldn't it be proper if the same member could not speak again on the same topic until all the other members who were given the opportunity have spoken?I think the original poster left out an apostophe. Let's address his real question.It is already the general rule that preference in recognition belongs to the member who has not yet spoken to the immediately pending question, RONR (11th ed.), p. 379, ll. 27-31. This is true whether or not the length of members' speeches has been especially limited. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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