Guest Scott Posted December 2, 2011 at 09:38 PM Report Share Posted December 2, 2011 at 09:38 PM If your by-laws allow for a Special Meeting of the membership to be called by either the President or the Board of Directors, and the President is reluctant to call such a meeting, can it be inferred (assuming there is no other verbiage present) that only a majority vote of the Board of Directors would be sufficient to allow this action? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trina Posted December 2, 2011 at 09:39 PM Report Share Posted December 2, 2011 at 09:39 PM Sounds reasonable -- majority vote (taken at a meeting of the BOD, of course). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
J. J. Posted December 2, 2011 at 09:45 PM Report Share Posted December 2, 2011 at 09:45 PM If your by-laws allow for a Special Meeting of the membership to be called by either the President or the Board of Directors, and the President is reluctant to call such a meeting, can it be inferred (assuming there is no other verbiage present) that only a majority vote of the Board of Directors would be sufficient to allow this action?More than "sounds reasonable." Unless the rules say differently, the decision of the board is determined by majority vote (p. 4, ll. 3-17). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trina Posted December 2, 2011 at 11:44 PM Report Share Posted December 2, 2011 at 11:44 PM More than "sounds reasonable." On re-reading, my earlier response does sound wishy-washy -- sorry about that. I was concentrating too much on the 'in a meeting' part -- imagining the members of this board of directors phoning and e-mailing to one another, trying to figure out how they can call a special meeting when the president won't do it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tim Wynn Posted December 3, 2011 at 03:30 PM Report Share Posted December 3, 2011 at 03:30 PM If your by-laws allow for a Special Meeting of the membership to be called by either the President or the Board of Directors, and the President is reluctant to call such a meeting, can it be inferred (assuming there is no other verbiage present) that only a majority vote of the Board of Directors would be sufficient to allow this action?It can be inferred that anything less than a majority vote would be insufficient. .However, to be clear, this could be accomplished without a vote, by unanimous consent.EDITED to add consent. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trina Posted December 3, 2011 at 07:52 PM Report Share Posted December 3, 2011 at 07:52 PM unanimous consent, that is... Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tim Wynn Posted December 3, 2011 at 08:36 PM Report Share Posted December 3, 2011 at 08:36 PM unanimous consent, that is...Thanks, Trina. A unanimous decision after 12 rounds of boxing would also do it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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