Guest louise frances Posted February 13, 2012 at 08:47 PM Report Share Posted February 13, 2012 at 08:47 PM we are a small incorporated society .at last night's committee meeting an officer tabled a motion , which was seconded and then chose to abstain from voting. Is this permissible procedure? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trina Posted February 13, 2012 at 09:46 PM Report Share Posted February 13, 2012 at 09:46 PM I assume you mean the officer made a motion to table a pending motion. There is no requirement for the maker of a motion to vote in favor of his own motion, or to vote at all for that matter. Members have a fundamental right to abstain from voting.The part that might not be 'permissible' is the motion to table, which is often used incorrectly when someone wants to postpone consideration of something to a future meeting.. but that wasn't your question. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Lance Posted February 19, 2012 at 09:51 PM Report Share Posted February 19, 2012 at 09:51 PM i had a similar incident. can the membership call for a motion to "table a vote"? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trina Posted February 19, 2012 at 11:22 PM Report Share Posted February 19, 2012 at 11:22 PM i had a similar incident. can the membership call for a motion to "table a vote"?Take a look at FAQ #12, and probably at the immediately following FAQ #13 -- see if that addresses some of your concerns.It is generally best to start a new thread ('start new topic') if you have a new question... just for future reference. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tim Wynn Posted February 20, 2012 at 12:13 AM Report Share Posted February 20, 2012 at 12:13 AM i had a similar incident. can the membership call for a motion to "table a vote"?No. In certain occasions, which occur rarely, a motion can be Laid on the Table. A VOTE cannot be Laid on the Table. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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