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PROPERARITY OF MAKING BYLAW AMENDMENTS A BLANKET VOTE WHEN CHANGES ARE MADE TO A NUMBER OF ARTICLES AND SECTIONS


Guest D J Brown

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We have a small Board of Directors, 12 in all. At one time a few years back we had a rather pushy president who made changes to our bylaws personally, without making them in writing, with no intents made, and pushed them through a vote claiming "we don't have time to discuss all of them, so this will be a blanket vote on all of them"

Was this proper, and what can be done to undo these changes properly if not?

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What did the members make the 'blanket vote' on if there was nothing in writing? Or do you mean that no prior notice of the amendments was provided in writing? Or perhaps no prior notice at all?

...a few years back...

How many years ago are we talking about?

Although it may be parliamentarily possible to undo past errors (depending on what exactly those errors were, and how well documented they are), I agree with Mr. Cisar that it may be easiest to just amend (perhaps revise, if the changes are very extensive) the bylaws.

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Was this proper, and what can be done to undo these changes properly if not?

Is it that you want to reverse all the changes made by this president? If so, and if you have a copy of the bylaws as they were prior, it might be easy enough to offer that version as a revision and put the bylaws back they way they were. If there have been other amendments along the way, they could be incorporated into this revision as well.

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What do the By-laws, as they are worded today, state about amending them? you would have to follow the amendment procedure outlined there, or in applicable statute. But as David said, if you have the previous version of the By-laws, simply follow today's amendment formula to change the By-laws back the way they were.

So what do the By-laws state about amending them?

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