Dan Honemann Posted March 30, 2012 at 01:36 AM Report Share Posted March 30, 2012 at 01:36 AM With all due respect to Mr. Mervosh, I'm a bit puzzled by this line of questioning. Maybe I'm just drawing a blank, but where does RONR say or imply that a member can ever unilaterally withdraw previous notice of a motion after the notice has been stated by the chair (or sent by the secretary)?Well, I suppose that the implication that he can arises from the fact that nowhere is it said that he can't. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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