Guest GARY Posted September 19, 2012 at 04:40 PM Report Share Posted September 19, 2012 at 04:40 PM Back in may we had a meeting in which the board was to vote on a union contract for the workers of the business, since 3 of the 7 members were union members of the same union - they felt as though they would need to abstain in order to be impartial for the vote, however, the remaining members present voted to approve the contract. is this a legal vote? The members that abstained were doing so to be fair and impartial, otherwise their votes would have be in favor of the contract. Since this was done in good faith, how would the vote carry? A quorum was at the meeting. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted September 19, 2012 at 04:42 PM Report Share Posted September 19, 2012 at 04:42 PM This exact question was answered here http://robertsrules....c/16937-voting/ Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Gary Novosielski Posted September 19, 2012 at 11:35 PM Report Share Posted September 19, 2012 at 11:35 PM Back in may we had a meeting in which the board was to vote on a union contract for the workers of the business, since 3 of the 7 members were union members of the same union - they felt as though they would need to abstain in order to be impartial for the vote, however, the remaining members present voted to approve the contract. is this a legal vote? The members that abstained were doing so to be fair and impartial, otherwise their votes would have be in favor of the contract. Since this was done in good faith, how would the vote carry? A quorum was at the meeting.The vote would carry because 4 voted Yes and 0 voted No. That's a unanimous vote in favor. I guess I don't understand the question, because I see nothing wrong with what you've described, and you don't indicate why you think the vote would be anything other than fine. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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