Guest Pam Posted September 26, 2012 at 05:36 PM Report Posted September 26, 2012 at 05:36 PM A quorum has been established, but someone has to abstain from voting, do I lose my quorum?
Chris Harrison Posted September 26, 2012 at 05:58 PM Report Posted September 26, 2012 at 05:58 PM No. A quorum is the number of people that need to be present in order to validly conduct business. A quorum has nothing to do with voting.
Trina Posted September 26, 2012 at 06:10 PM Report Posted September 26, 2012 at 06:10 PM A quorum has been established, but someone has to abstain from voting, do I lose my quorum?Why does the member have to abstain from voting? Is there no element of choice?
Guest Pam Posted September 26, 2012 at 06:37 PM Report Posted September 26, 2012 at 06:37 PM it's a credentialing meeting and he can't vote for himself.The bylaws state that a quorum is 50% of the voting members. Does this still apply: "A quorum has nothing to do with voting."?
Chris Harrison Posted September 26, 2012 at 06:45 PM Report Posted September 26, 2012 at 06:45 PM The bylaws state that a quorum is 50% of the voting members. Does this still apply: "A quorum has nothing to do with voting."?Do you have more than one classification of Membership with one or more classes that doesn't have all of the rights of membership?
David A Foulkes Posted September 26, 2012 at 07:08 PM Report Posted September 26, 2012 at 07:08 PM it's a credentialing meeting and he can't vote for himself.Who says? Is that in the bylaws? Local/State/Federal/Corporate Law? Anyway, couldn't he vote for someone else? Or is he the only person/member to be credentialed?The bylaws state that a quorum is 50% of the voting members. Does this still apply: "A quorum has nothing to do with voting."?Well, if you wait until voting is taking place to determine how many members are voting so you can determine your 50% quorum, your quorum could be changing with every vote. Besides, in that case, you would always have a quorum, wouldn't you?
Trina Posted September 26, 2012 at 07:20 PM Report Posted September 26, 2012 at 07:20 PM it's a credentialing meeting and he can't vote for himself.The bylaws state that a quorum is 50% of the voting members. Does this still apply: "A quorum has nothing to do with voting."?If the member truly is deprived of his right to vote (by a bylaws level rule) in this situation, then he is (at least for that item of business) not a voting member and hence may not count toward quorum. However, as Mr. Foulkes asked -- Who says the member can't vote? Is that in the bylaws? and so forth...You may find this earlier thread interesting:http://robertsrules....__fromsearch__1
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