Guest Pam Posted September 26, 2012 at 05:36 PM Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 at 05:36 PM A quorum has been established, but someone has to abstain from voting, do I lose my quorum? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chris Harrison Posted September 26, 2012 at 05:58 PM Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 at 05:58 PM No. A quorum is the number of people that need to be present in order to validly conduct business. A quorum has nothing to do with voting. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trina Posted September 26, 2012 at 06:10 PM Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 at 06:10 PM A quorum has been established, but someone has to abstain from voting, do I lose my quorum?Why does the member have to abstain from voting? Is there no element of choice? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Pam Posted September 26, 2012 at 06:37 PM Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 at 06:37 PM it's a credentialing meeting and he can't vote for himself.The bylaws state that a quorum is 50% of the voting members. Does this still apply: "A quorum has nothing to do with voting."? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chris Harrison Posted September 26, 2012 at 06:45 PM Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 at 06:45 PM The bylaws state that a quorum is 50% of the voting members. Does this still apply: "A quorum has nothing to do with voting."?Do you have more than one classification of Membership with one or more classes that doesn't have all of the rights of membership? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David A Foulkes Posted September 26, 2012 at 07:08 PM Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 at 07:08 PM it's a credentialing meeting and he can't vote for himself.Who says? Is that in the bylaws? Local/State/Federal/Corporate Law? Anyway, couldn't he vote for someone else? Or is he the only person/member to be credentialed?The bylaws state that a quorum is 50% of the voting members. Does this still apply: "A quorum has nothing to do with voting."?Well, if you wait until voting is taking place to determine how many members are voting so you can determine your 50% quorum, your quorum could be changing with every vote. Besides, in that case, you would always have a quorum, wouldn't you? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Trina Posted September 26, 2012 at 07:20 PM Report Share Posted September 26, 2012 at 07:20 PM it's a credentialing meeting and he can't vote for himself.The bylaws state that a quorum is 50% of the voting members. Does this still apply: "A quorum has nothing to do with voting."?If the member truly is deprived of his right to vote (by a bylaws level rule) in this situation, then he is (at least for that item of business) not a voting member and hence may not count toward quorum. However, as Mr. Foulkes asked -- Who says the member can't vote? Is that in the bylaws? and so forth...You may find this earlier thread interesting:http://robertsrules....__fromsearch__1 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Archived
This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.