rthib Posted April 5, 2013 at 10:36 PM Report Share Posted April 5, 2013 at 10:36 PM Bylaws say that Committee A or Committee B can call a convention of the body.Committee B passes a motion and issues a Call on March 10 for a Convention on April 30.Committee A (which has the authority to do this) changes Bylaws to remove the power of Committee A to call a convention.This is done on March 20 (after Committee B has already met and passed motion.)Is the call still Valid, since the motion by A was valid when it was made? If not, can you point me to a reference.If still valid, would Committee A need to pass a motion to rescind the call if they wanted to stop the process.Assume the only thing bylaws say on subject are:Convention can be called with 10 days notice.Committee A or Committee B can call a convention of members.Thanks again. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Josh Martin Posted April 5, 2013 at 11:26 PM Report Share Posted April 5, 2013 at 11:26 PM Committee A (which has the authority to do this) changes Bylaws to remove the power of Committee A to call a convention.I think something is wrong here (and possibly elsewhere in the post as well), but I understand what you're getting at.Is the call still Valid, since the motion by A was valid when it was made?Yes.If still valid, would Committee A need to pass a motion to rescind the call if they wanted to stop the process.There is no procedure in RONR to "rescind" a call (or any other method to stop the process). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
rthib Posted April 6, 2013 at 04:02 AM Author Report Share Posted April 6, 2013 at 04:02 AM Thanks. That was my understanding just wanted a sanity check - since I am dealing with insane people Sorry, Letters are all messed up.Should read Committee B calls, A removes power from B. Is B call still valid since it was made when B had power? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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