Guest Frank Posted October 30, 2013 at 01:25 AM Report Share Posted October 30, 2013 at 01:25 AM For a homeowners association meeting I was asked to vote for an owner by proxy. The Association Manager informed me that the owner was to send the proxy to him in order for him to establish a proxy before the day of the meeting. Presumably to protect out of town owners from traveling to a meeting for which no proxy would be established. Is this proper? And if so should it be established as such in the by laws? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Josh Martin Posted October 30, 2013 at 01:26 AM Report Share Posted October 30, 2013 at 01:26 AM For a homeowners association meeting I was asked to vote for an owner by proxy. The Association Manager informed me that the owner was to send the proxy to him in order for him to establish a proxy before the day of the meeting. Presumably to protect out of town owners from traveling to a meeting for which no proxy would be established. Is this proper? And if so should it be established as such in the by laws? See FAQ #10, especially the last sentence. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Recommended Posts
Archived
This topic is now archived and is closed to further replies.