Guest M.A. Rose Posted June 3, 2014 at 09:25 AM Report Share Posted June 3, 2014 at 09:25 AM Here is how the business meeting went: - Main motion moved - Amendment 1 moved and discussed, but discussion led to impasse - Before the vote on Amendment 1, another suggestion was made which was well received; this suggestion was put into the form of a motion to amend the main motion (I'll call this Amendment 2), leaving Amendment 1 hanging - Amendment 2 passed and the main motion (with Amendment 2) passed. Amendment 1 was never brought up for discussion again before the meeting adjourned This seems to be a breach of RONR, so that's not really the question. The question is, now that this has come to light, does this nullify the passage of the main motion with Amendment 2? Is it REQUIRED that Amendment 1 be considered at the next meeting? Or, since the meeting has been adjourned with no objection during the meeting, does the vote stand? If so, then I guess the maker of Amendment 1 is still free to raise the issue at a subsequent meeting, right? Any thoughts? Thanks! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Timothy Posted June 3, 2014 at 10:44 AM Report Share Posted June 3, 2014 at 10:44 AM What appears to have happened is that Amendment 2 was made as a substitute for Amendment 1. Once Amendment 2 passed, Amendment 1 would no longer be considered. The main motion, which now included Amendment 2, passed, so that is what the assembly adopted and the vote stands. If you are opposed to the motion that was passed, you can make a motion to rescind or amend something previously adopted, but there is nothing about how the motion was adopted that would give you special privileges in doing so. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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