Guest John Q Posted June 14, 2014 at 07:56 PM Report Share Posted June 14, 2014 at 07:56 PM An organization has a bylaw provision concerning board of director meetings that specifies notice shall be mailed X number of days preceding a meeting - meetings are permitted by the call of the chair. It's obvious this is a rule protecting absentees - but its specified in the bylaws. If all board members show-up at a meeting that didn't meet the X number of days provision - and all members give consent to transact business, does it waive the notice requirement located in the bylaws? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Josh Martin Posted June 14, 2014 at 09:33 PM Report Share Posted June 14, 2014 at 09:33 PM An organization has a bylaw provision concerning board of director meetings that specifies notice shall be mailed X number of days preceding a meeting - meetings are permitted by the call of the chair. It's obvious this is a rule protecting absentees - but its specified in the bylaws. If all board members show-up at a meeting that didn't meet the X number of days provision - and all members give consent to transact business, does it waive the notice requirement located in the bylaws? No, it does not (unless there is provision for such a waiver in the bylaws or a higher-level rule). See here for more information. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest John Q Posted June 14, 2014 at 10:59 PM Report Share Posted June 14, 2014 at 10:59 PM Thank you Mr. Martin, for your timely answer. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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