Guest Laura McLaughlin Posted July 13, 2014 at 02:13 AM Report Share Posted July 13, 2014 at 02:13 AM In a HOA, members not present or represented by a proxy, were declared to be NO votes for association business. Is this correct? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted July 13, 2014 at 02:29 AM Report Share Posted July 13, 2014 at 02:29 AM No, not correct. At least not according to RONR. Your HOA may have different rules. Ask the person who claimed that the absent members, in effect, all voted "No", where he got such a rule. If he claims it is in RONR, insist that he show you where -- it will keep him fruitlessly busy for quite a while. (Hint: it ain't there!) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rev Ed Posted July 13, 2014 at 04:23 AM Report Share Posted July 13, 2014 at 04:23 AM The only time that an absent member would essentially be voting 'no' is if a vote requires a majority vote of the entire membership. And while the absence of the member has the same effect as voting 'no', it is still not a 'no' vote as no vote was actually cast. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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