Guest tmoseley Posted July 18, 2014 at 12:59 PM Report Share Posted July 18, 2014 at 12:59 PM we have a council of 9, one of the council members is trying to stop a referendum vote for strong mayor.this council brought up a email conversation he had with the city attorney and read it to the council. No oneelse knew of the email nor did he give out copies. He then asked to make a motion and wait one year to putthe strong mayor into effect. He slanted what the attorney had replied in order to get the majority votes. Threemembers would not vote because they did not have a copy of what was said in the email. Would that vote count, was that legal? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chris Harrison Posted July 18, 2014 at 01:19 PM Report Share Posted July 18, 2014 at 01:19 PM As far as RONR is concerned nothing about the vote was improper. If the other members had a problem with working off an email that none of them had heard of or seen they could have flat out rejected the motion or referred it to a committee who would be instructed to contact the City Attorney for clarification. In other words they were not obligated to take this member's word for it and that they chose to go along with it can be viewed as a hard lesson that would (hopefully) obtain a different result if it happens again. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted July 18, 2014 at 01:21 PM Report Share Posted July 18, 2014 at 01:21 PM Sounds like nice rough and tumble politics to me. But regardless of the accuracy (or lack) of the information, three people abstaining from the final vote/decision does not make the decision improper -- whether there is a question of legality will be one for your lawyers to deal with. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Edgar Guest Posted July 18, 2014 at 01:51 PM Report Share Posted July 18, 2014 at 01:51 PM Three members would not vote because they did not have a copy of what was said in the email. By not voting they let this allegedly duplicitous member prevail. By the way, if no one saw this e-mail, how do you know its contents were "slanted" by the member in question? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted July 18, 2014 at 03:18 PM Report Share Posted July 18, 2014 at 03:18 PM we have a council of 9, one of the council members is trying to stop a referendum vote for strong mayor.this council brought up a email conversation he had with the city attorney and read it to the council. No oneelse knew of the email nor did he give out copies. He then asked to make a motion and wait one year to putthe strong mayor into effect. He slanted what the attorney had replied in order to get the majority votes. Threemembers would not vote because they did not have a copy of what was said in the email. Would that vote count, was that legal? Unless council rules say otherwise, there's a rule in RONR about this: "If any member objects, a member has no right to read from—or to have the secretary read from—any paper or book as a part of his speech without permission of the assembly. This rule is a protection against the use of reading as a means of prolonging debate and delaying business. It is customary, however, to permit members to read short, pertinent, printed extracts in debate so long as they do not abuse the privilege." RONR (11th ed.), p. 298 Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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