Guest Guest Bill Posted October 2, 2014 at 03:17 PM Report Share Posted October 2, 2014 at 03:17 PM We have a small Board of 12 members and we work with 10 clubs. 3 members are from one club, and a 4th person from that club wants a seat. Does Robert's address the issue of "overrepresentation" from one club? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Richard Brown Posted October 2, 2014 at 03:20 PM Report Share Posted October 2, 2014 at 03:20 PM No. It seems you have an unusual situation where you apparently select/elect members to your board based on what club they belong to. That is due to a provision in your bylaws or other rules. The answer to your question will not be found in RONR. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Edgar Guest Posted October 2, 2014 at 03:51 PM Report Share Posted October 2, 2014 at 03:51 PM . . . you apparently select/elect members to your board based on what club they belong to. Or not. The fact that one-third of the board (four out of twelve) might be members of the same club suggests that it may be entirely up to the voters. Edited to add: This recent thread seems remarkably similar. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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