Guest Gary Goldberg Posted October 10, 2014 at 04:27 PM Report Share Posted October 10, 2014 at 04:27 PM If there is a question of who has voting privileges according to the by-laws and a vote is taken at which time it is deemed someone should have beem allowed to vote who didn't, does that invalidate the results of the vote? Thank you. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Richard Brown Posted October 10, 2014 at 04:31 PM Report Share Posted October 10, 2014 at 04:31 PM Only if that one vote could have changed the outcome... and assuming that the person wanted to vote, but was not allowed to. If the matter was decided by more than one vote, then the error would not make any difference. btw, it may be up to the assembly itself to decide whether the person in question was actually entitled to vote but erroneously denied the opportunity to do so. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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