Guest Seth Taylor Posted January 22, 2015 at 03:03 PM Report Share Posted January 22, 2015 at 03:03 PM Hello: I am new to this, and I don't know whether this is even a RR question, but here goes: Am I correct in assuming that waiver of a seven-day notice rule for voting items requires unanimous consent? I assume that one person can prevent waiver of the rule even if everyone else is willing to waive it. Thanks. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chris Harrison Posted January 22, 2015 at 03:16 PM Report Share Posted January 22, 2015 at 03:16 PM That is (to some extent) an RONR question. There are some here that believe that a notice rule cannot be waived no matter whether there is unanimous consent or not. Then there are some who argue that the rule can be waived if and only if every single member of the organization are at the meeting and there is no objection (the thought being a notice rule protects the rights of absentees and those who are absent cannot protect their own rights). Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Guest Posted January 22, 2015 at 04:04 PM Report Share Posted January 22, 2015 at 04:04 PM Thanks, Chris! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Hieu H. Huynh Posted January 22, 2015 at 04:18 PM Report Share Posted January 22, 2015 at 04:18 PM A rule requiring previous notice for voting items protects absentees, if there are any, and cannot be suspended when any member is absent. However if there are no absentees, I think the rule could be suspended by a two-thirds vote. Where does your seven-day notice rule come from and what are these voting items? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Josh Martin Posted January 22, 2015 at 07:36 PM Report Share Posted January 22, 2015 at 07:36 PM That is (to some extent) an RONR question. There are some here that believe that a notice rule cannot be waived no matter whether there is unanimous consent or not. Then there are some who argue that the rule can be waived if and only if every single member of the organization are at the meeting and there is no objection (the thought being a notice rule protects the rights of absentees and those who are absent cannot protect their own rights).I don't think those are the only views on the subject. Personally, I concur with Mr. Huynh that a rule requiring previous notice of a motion cannot be suspended unless all members are present, but if all members are present, a 2/3 vote would suffice to suspend the rule. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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