Guest Bruce Posted April 28, 2015 at 10:25 PM Report Share Posted April 28, 2015 at 10:25 PM Does the following bylaws statement seem odd? If special meetings of the association may be called by written notice of 11 Association meetings, why should a quorum for such meetings be dependent on a quorum containing only Board members? "A Quorum. At any meeting of the Association, a majority of the Board members will constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. In the absence of a quorum, the members present must adjourn the meeting to a later date, but notice of such adjourned meeting will be given in a manner prescribed in the preceding section for a special meeting." The Board could effectively nullify a specially called meeting by the Association members simply by not showing up. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Edgar Guest Posted April 28, 2015 at 10:28 PM Report Share Posted April 28, 2015 at 10:28 PM Does the following bylaws statement seem odd? Unfortunately, we've seen this before.You might want to amend your bylaws. [but note that, in the absence of a quorum, the meeting wouldn't be "nullified". It's just that nothing substantive could be done at the inquorate meeting.] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BruceVIDA Posted April 28, 2015 at 10:28 PM Report Share Posted April 28, 2015 at 10:28 PM Above I had a typo and couldn't find the edit button. It should read: "...by written notice of 11 Association members,..." Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Edgar Guest Posted April 28, 2015 at 10:31 PM Report Share Posted April 28, 2015 at 10:31 PM Above I had a typo and couldn't find the edit button. That's because you didn't post as a member. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
BruceVIDA Posted April 28, 2015 at 10:32 PM Report Share Posted April 28, 2015 at 10:32 PM Unfortunately, we've seen this before.You might want to amend your bylaws. [but note that, in the absence of a quorum, the meeting wouldn't be "nullified". It's just that nothing substantive could be done at the inquorate meeting.] Yup. A couple years ago, before I joined the old aristocracy changed this from "thirteen members" to "a majority of the Board" This is the same crew that has been running the organization that I referenced in the post I made a little while ago about not enough Board members. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Josh Martin Posted April 29, 2015 at 12:02 AM Report Share Posted April 29, 2015 at 12:02 AM Does the following bylaws statement seem odd? If special meetings of the association may be called by written notice of 11 Association meetings, why should a quorum for such meetings be dependent on a quorum containing only Board members? "A Quorum. At any meeting of the Association, a majority of the Board members will constitute a quorum for the transaction of business. In the absence of a quorum, the members present must adjourn the meeting to a later date, but notice of such adjourned meeting will be given in a manner prescribed in the preceding section for a special meeting." The Board could effectively nullify a specially called meeting by the Association members simply by not showing up. Yes, it is very odd (but not unheard of). I concur that there is no logical reason for the quorum for meetings of the association to be based on the number of board members present and that such a rule could have unfortunate consequences. It seems it would be prudent to amend the bylaws to fix this problem. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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