Guest J. J. Posted May 16, 2010 at 02:31 PM Report Share Posted May 16, 2010 at 02:31 PM Under RONR, no. There would, however, be several things to look at. 1. Is a unanimous vote of the members present required or do the bylaws require all members of the board to vote on it. 2. Is the organization covered by some" Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest H.Wm.Mountcastle Posted May 16, 2010 at 03:05 PM Report Share Posted May 16, 2010 at 03:05 PM And note that "unanimous approval" may not mean the same thing as a "unanimous vote". At a meeting of six members, a vote of 1-0, with five members abstaining, is considered a unanimous vote but might not be considered "u" Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Guest Kim Goldsworthy Posted May 16, 2010 at 09:37 PM Report Share Posted May 16, 2010 at 09:37 PM Steve, >>Assuming all board members present approve the motion . . .<< >>May the missing member approve such motion after the fact a few days later?<< kg: No. That is impossible under Robert's Rules of Order.<" Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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