Guest Annette Posted June 16, 2010 at 01:49 PM Report Share Posted June 16, 2010 at 01:49 PM Can a member make/bring a motion when he/she is directed impacted/connected to the outcome? For example, can an individual move that a designated person be permitted to spend allocated funds when he/she is the designated person? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chris Harrison Posted June 16, 2010 at 01:54 PM Report Share Posted June 16, 2010 at 01:54 PM Yes, although he shouldn't vote on it (RONR p. 394).Edited to say:He also probably should not be making the motion either for the same reasons regarding voting on it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
STA Posted June 16, 2010 at 02:17 PM Report Share Posted June 16, 2010 at 02:17 PM Depends on what you mean by "connected to the outcome".The key is a member should not vote on a motion for which she has a "direct personal or pecuniary interest not common to other members of the organization." [RONR p394] Directing a contract to your brother-in-law is one thing. But, for example, just because an individual will actually make a purchase on behalf of the organization doesn't necessarily give her that uncommon personal interest. She might just be the most qualified member to say how much will be required. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hmtcastle Posted June 16, 2010 at 02:34 PM Report Share Posted June 16, 2010 at 02:34 PM Can a member make/bring a motion when he/she is directed impacted/connected to the outcome? For example, can an individual move that a designated person be permitted to spend allocated funds when he/she is the designated person?While not prohibited, it would be better if he could find someone else to make the motion. Just as it's better to find someone else to nominate you rather than nominating yourself. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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