Chris Harrison Posted June 28, 2010 at 03:20 PM Report Share Posted June 28, 2010 at 03:20 PM Say an assembly votes on a motion by ballot and allowed a member who wasn't present to vote absentee (the bylaws don't address absentee voting). The motion is adopted 50-1. At a later meeting a member raises a Point of Order that since absentee voting is not allowed per the bylaws the action taken is null and void based on RONR p. 244(d). When the Chair rules how should he rule?1) Not Well Taken because the single absentee vote could not affect the results of the vote. or 2) Well Taken. However, the vote still stands because the single absentee vote could not affect the results of the vote.Also, if the motion was adopted 51-49 should the Chair's response be changed any? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted June 28, 2010 at 03:29 PM Report Share Posted June 28, 2010 at 03:29 PM #2, and if it's possible the violation could have affected the result the motion should be declared well taken and the adopted motion is null and void Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Chris Harrison Posted June 28, 2010 at 03:35 PM Author Report Share Posted June 28, 2010 at 03:35 PM #2, and if it's possible the violation could have affected the result the motion should be declared well taken and the adopted motion is null and voidThat is what I was thinking. However, I always got the impression that folks here were saying that the Point of Order should be ruled Not Well Taken if the absentee votes could not have affected the results. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted June 28, 2010 at 04:11 PM Report Share Posted June 28, 2010 at 04:11 PM "However, I always got the impression that folks here were saying that the Point of Order should be ruled Not Well Taken if the absentee votes could not have affected the results." Not quite what I thought -- it is the effect of _illegal_ votes that gets ignored if they, the votes, make no difference in the outcome. Absentee voting (p. 408) violates a "fundamental principal" and gets you in deep doo-doo even when such a vote is really of no consequence. Seems to me that the level of violation is such that the whole decision is invalidated. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted June 28, 2010 at 04:13 PM Report Share Posted June 28, 2010 at 04:13 PM That is what I was thinking. However, I always got the impression that folks here were saying that the Point of Order should be ruled Not Well Taken if the absentee votes could not have affected the results.The net effect is the same but I'd say it's improper for a Chair to state something that's just not accurate ("we didn't violate the rules".....when they clearly did) especially since his ruling is memorialized in the minutes. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dan Honemann Posted June 28, 2010 at 04:22 PM Report Share Posted June 28, 2010 at 04:22 PM "However, I always got the impression that folks here were saying that the Point of Order should be ruled Not Well Taken if the absentee votes could not have affected the results." Not quite what I thought -- it is the effect of _illegal_ votes that gets ignored if they, the votes, make no difference in the outcome. Absentee voting (p. 408) violates a "fundamental principal" and gets you in deep doo-doo even when such a vote is really of no consequence. Seems to me that the level of violation is such that the whole decision is invalidated.Well, I was with you up until the end. It seems to me that George has got it right. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rob Elsman Posted June 28, 2010 at 06:17 PM Report Share Posted June 28, 2010 at 06:17 PM My own sense is that the Point of Order is dilatory and should not admitted or ruled upon at all. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dan Honemann Posted June 28, 2010 at 06:23 PM Report Share Posted June 28, 2010 at 06:23 PM My own sense is that the Point of Order is dilatory and should not admitted or ruled upon at all.A point of order concerning the breach of a fundamental principle of parliamentary law dilatory? I don't think so. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rob Elsman Posted June 28, 2010 at 06:36 PM Report Share Posted June 28, 2010 at 06:36 PM A point of order concerning the breach of a fundamental principle of parliamentary law dilatory? I don't think so.A Point of Order should not be raised about a purely technical breach of the rules when the chair's ruling either way would make no earthly difference. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dan Honemann Posted June 28, 2010 at 06:43 PM Report Share Posted June 28, 2010 at 06:43 PM A Point of Order should not be raised about a purely technical breach of the rules when the chair's ruling either way would make no earthly difference.I disagree that this is a "purely technical breach", and I very much disagree that "the chair's ruling either way" will make no earthly difference. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Rob Elsman Posted June 28, 2010 at 06:46 PM Report Share Posted June 28, 2010 at 06:46 PM I disagree that this is a "purely technical breach", and I very much disagree that "the chair's ruling either way" will make no earthly difference.The motion was adopted, either way, and there is no legitimate purpose for the chair to make a ruling whose only effect is to reaffirm what the rule already says. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dan Honemann Posted June 28, 2010 at 06:52 PM Report Share Posted June 28, 2010 at 06:52 PM The motion was adopted, either way, and there is no legitimate purpose for the chair to make a ruling whose only effect is to reaffirm what the rule already says.Well, you no doubt also disagree with what is said in the second paragraph of the answer given RONR Official Interpretation 2006-6, but I don't intend to argue about it. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Ann Rempel Posted June 29, 2010 at 02:40 AM Report Share Posted June 29, 2010 at 02:40 AM It seems to me that George has got it right.Does the trophy transfer from Gary to George at this point? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Tim Wynn Posted June 29, 2010 at 02:46 AM Report Share Posted June 29, 2010 at 02:46 AM Does the trophy transfer from Gary to George at this point? It'll go to his head. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
J. J. Posted June 29, 2010 at 02:50 AM Report Share Posted June 29, 2010 at 02:50 AM isn't there an interpretation covering this? A well written that agrees with George? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Josh Martin Posted June 29, 2010 at 10:01 PM Report Share Posted June 29, 2010 at 10:01 PM isn't there an interpretation covering this? A well written that agrees with George? Official Interpretation 2006-6 covers a similar question, as Mr. Honemann alluded to. If the same principles are applied (and I think they should be), then Mr. Mervosh's response is entirely correct. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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