Guest Judy Posted July 11, 2010 at 08:42 PM Report Share Posted July 11, 2010 at 08:42 PM At a planning meeting a motion on a resolution was put forth, debated, amended but not yet voted on. A second member then made an alternative motion on the same question. The Chairman proceeded to call for a vote on the 2nd motion which carried 3-2. Should the second motion have taken precedence over the first? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
jstackpo Posted July 11, 2010 at 08:57 PM Report Share Posted July 11, 2010 at 08:57 PM Well, yes and no...If the "second main motion" was presented as an amendment by substitution, where the text of thr second motion was proposed to replace the "first" main motion wholesale, then it was proper to vote on making the amendment. But then you have to vote on the (new text) main motion, as amended. It doesn't appear you have done so. Consider it "unfinished business" and it should be brought up for that final vote next meeting. But if the second motion mover was sort of being a bully and asserting that his main motion deserved first consideration as such, then no. You should have disposed of the first motion first. The chair made an error, in this case, in allowing the vote on the second motion. But... it is all water over the dam(n) now - no points of order were raised at the time in an attempt to straighten things out. So I'd consider the second motion as adopted (slightly contradicting my first paragraph).But you are free to rescind it next meeting if you don't like it, and try again with the first (more or less) defeated first motion. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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