Guest Donald Posted July 23, 2010 at 02:57 PM Report Share Posted July 23, 2010 at 02:57 PM Our association of 50 members is soon to be voting on an issue which according to our bylaws "requires a 2/3 vote of the entire membership" to pass. A quorum is defined in our bylaws as 26 members. If my math is correct, 34 affermative votes will be required for the issue to pass. The question: If only 30 members show and vote on the issue am I correct in saying that issue would not pass even if all in attendence voted affermatively? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted July 23, 2010 at 03:28 PM Report Share Posted July 23, 2010 at 03:28 PM This non-standard wording is not defined in RONR. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Dan Honemann Posted July 23, 2010 at 03:38 PM Report Share Posted July 23, 2010 at 03:38 PM George is right, but I'd be inclined to agree with you if I had any say in the matter. The phrase "a 2/3 vote of the membership" is inherently ambiguous, but I think the phrase "a 2/3 vote of the entire membership" rather clearly refers to a vote of 2/3 (not just a 2/3 vote) of the entire membership. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
George Mervosh Posted July 23, 2010 at 03:52 PM Report Share Posted July 23, 2010 at 03:52 PM George is right, but I'd be inclined to agree with you if I had any say in the matter. The phrase "a 2/3 vote of the membership" is inherently ambiguous, but I think the phrase "a 2/3 vote of the entire membership" rather clearly refers to a vote of 2/3 (not just a 2/3 vote) of the entire membership.I was trying to say what Dan said but deleted the post twice. He's a handy guy to have around. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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