Voting question

[laborlrc]

A special meeting was called or an association to vote on a change in a negotiated agreement with an employer. The By-Laws of the assosiation state that "4 regular meetings will be called per year and that the President may call special meetings at his/her discretion". They go on to say that "Business of the association may be conducted only at these meetings when a quorum is present. The quorum for a general meeting shall be the membership present". It doesn't say what a quorum is for a special meeting. The By-Laws do not state whether a vote passes with majority, 50 + 1, or 2/3 vote for either type meeting. FIRTST QUESTION: Since this was a "special meeting", was a vote of majority, 50+1, or 2/3 necessary for passage? SECOND QUESTION: Also, what was the quorum? Also, members who were not present were told they couldn't vote by absentee ballot (that is in the by-laws), yet coaches were permitted to come to the meeting place after the vote was taken and after the meeting was over to "add" their votes to the box. THIRD QUESTION: Should there have been a call for the vote and an ending time for the vote? I should also mention, that Robert's Rules of Order are not specifically mentioned in the by-laws but that is how they've always conducted meetings and elections (at least that is what has been attempted). FOURTH QUESTION: If things were done incorrectly, can the vote be declared invalid and redone? FIFTH QUESTION: What would the process be?

[jstackpo]

1) The RONR default for decisions at any meeting is a majority of those voting on a question.

2) The RONR default quorum for a meeting when none is specified in the bylaws is a majority of the membership.

3) Without RONR specified in the bylaws you are on your own. Do the Union Regs specify some other authority? f so, don't bother to ask about it here -- we deal in RONR exclusively here.

4) & 5) Yes, and follow your bylaws.