Guest Greg Posted September 20, 2010 at 01:32 AM Report Share Posted September 20, 2010 at 01:32 AM If a by-law states that the annual meeting must be communicated either verbally or by mail, and the meeting was held without the communication. Is it a legal meeting?What is the consequence? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hmtcastle Posted September 20, 2010 at 01:50 AM Report Share Posted September 20, 2010 at 01:50 AM If a by-law states that the annual meeting must be communicated either verbally or by mail, and the meeting was held without the communication. Is it a legal meeting?What is the consequence?Assuming the notice required by the bylaws was not given, all business conducted at such an illegitimate meeting is null and void. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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