salger53 Posted November 17, 2010 at 07:15 PM Report Share Posted November 17, 2010 at 07:15 PM Recently at a membership meeting,changes were being made to the bylaws. The bylaw chair read a change in the current bylaw, a motion was made and seconded he allowed a vote with no discussion. Would this motion be valid without any discussion? Is there any recourse to be taken? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Kim Goldsworthy Posted November 17, 2010 at 07:23 PM Report Share Posted November 17, 2010 at 07:23 PM Recently at a membership meeting,changes were being made to the bylaws. The bylaw chair read a change in the current bylaw, a motion was made and seconded he allowed a vote with no discussion.Would this motion be valid without any discussion?Yes, all other things being equal.I mean, you cannot compel the assembly to debate.If everybody had their mind made up, and wasn't interesting in hearing other viewpoints, then there is no rule in Robert's Rules which implies, "You cannot keep your opinions to yourselves; you must make noise and blurt out your biases and prejudices."Is there any recourse to be taken?No.No violation of Robert's Rules of Order has occurred. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David A Foulkes Posted November 17, 2010 at 07:25 PM Report Share Posted November 17, 2010 at 07:25 PM Recently at a membership meeting,changes were being made to the bylaws. The bylaw chair read a change in the current bylaw, a motion was made and seconded he allowed a vote with no discussion. Would this motion be valid without any discussion? Is there any recourse to be taken?Is the bylaw (committee?) chair also the president, and thus presiding at a membership meeting? When you say he allowed a vote with no discussion, did he state in some way there could be no discussion, or just ask for aye and no votes? I gather no one objected to this. Although many/most motions are debatable, it's not a requirement that there be any debate, so if no one really had anything to say, it would not be improper to get right to the voting. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
hmtcastle Posted November 17, 2010 at 07:28 PM Report Share Posted November 17, 2010 at 07:28 PM Is there any recourse to be taken?Sure. If the motion was defeated, simply make it again at the next meeting. If it was adopted, make a motion to rescind, or otherwise amend, it at the next meeting. Nothing is carved in stone. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
Josh Martin Posted November 17, 2010 at 07:34 PM Report Share Posted November 17, 2010 at 07:34 PM Recently at a membership meeting,changes were being made to the bylaws. The bylaw chair read a change in the current bylaw, a motion was made and seconded he allowed a vote with no discussion. Would this motion be valid without any discussion?I'm not entirely clear on what happened. If you're simply suggesting that no one chose to speak in debate, that is entirely proper. If you're suggesting that the chair did not allow for discussion, this was improper, but it is too late to raise a Point of Order about it now. Either way, the motion is valid.Is there any recourse to be taken?Since this is a Bylaw amendment, regardless of the outcome, the proper course of action would be to follow the procedure for amending the Bylaws if you desire to change them. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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