monty Posted May 24, 2012 at 01:47 PM Report Share Posted May 24, 2012 at 01:47 PM A main motion has been made in an assembly (not a committee situation), no second was announced, and the chair allows debate to begin on the motion. Absent a point of order regarding no second to the motion, is the second then immaterial because debate has begun and the motion proceeds to some conclusion?I am wondering if the above situation is the meaning of: "After debate has begun, or if there is no debate, after any member has voted, the lack of a second has become immaterial and it is too late to make a point of order that the motion has not been seconded." [RONR (11th ed.), p. 37, ll. 9-12] Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David A Foulkes Posted May 24, 2012 at 01:56 PM Report Share Posted May 24, 2012 at 01:56 PM Your understanding is correct. The point of a second is to indicate to the chair that at least two people wish the motion to be considered, so that he does not waste the assembly's time on questions that only one person (the maker) is interested in even pursuing. But once debate begins (or if no debate, voting begins) and there is no objection raised about the lack of a second, it is clear that the assembly does in fact wish to consider the motion, so all is well. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tctheatc Posted May 25, 2012 at 08:17 PM Report Share Posted May 25, 2012 at 08:17 PM "After debate has begun, or if there is no debate, after any member has voted, the lack of a second has become immaterial and it is too late to make a point of order that the motion has not been seconded." [RONR (11th ed.), p. 37, ll. 9-12]Your understanding is correct. The point of a second is to indicate to the chair that at least two people wish the motion to be considered, so that he does not waste the assembly's time on questions that only one person (the maker) is interested in even pursuing. But once debate begins (or if no debate, voting begins) and there is no objection raised about the lack of a second, it is clear that the assembly does in fact wish to consider the motion, so all is well.What if an objection were to be raised? Would it make a difference? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David A Foulkes Posted May 25, 2012 at 08:21 PM Report Share Posted May 25, 2012 at 08:21 PM What if an objection were to be raised? Would it make a difference?" - a point of order (see 23) can be raised that the motion has not been seconded; and then the chair must proceed formally and ask if there is a second." (RONR 11th ed., p. 37 ll. 4-6) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tctheatc Posted May 26, 2012 at 03:02 AM Report Share Posted May 26, 2012 at 03:02 AM Yes, but the beginning of that cite says "Until debate has begun..." (or until a vote if there isn't debate).I thought in your post #2 you were meaning an objection raised about the lack of a second AFTER debate has begun. (Once debate begins...and there is no objection...) Maybe I misunderstood. Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David A Foulkes Posted May 26, 2012 at 11:04 AM Report Share Posted May 26, 2012 at 11:04 AM I thought in your post #2 you were meaning an objection raised about the lack of a second AFTER debate has begun.Well, I should have been clearer. Perhaps I should have said "...and there has been no objection raised...." Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
tctheatc Posted May 26, 2012 at 12:31 PM Report Share Posted May 26, 2012 at 12:31 PM I think we're on the same page! :-) Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
David A Foulkes Posted May 26, 2012 at 01:12 PM Report Share Posted May 26, 2012 at 01:12 PM I think we're on the same page! :-)And in the same book, too! Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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