L. Thorson Posted September 15, 2010 at 04:13 AM Report Share Posted September 15, 2010 at 04:13 AM Members of our non-profit corporation pay yearly dues to participate in the recreational programs of this corporation. Some of the dues paying members also serve as employees of the corporation. We refer to them as member/employee. Recently an employee/member appeared before the Board under the unanimous consent rule. He made comments appoximating 3 minutes in length. The Board remained silent, i.e., no challenge as to his remarks not being germane. One month later the employee was fired because the "3 minute remarks" reflected subordination. What is the most appropriate RONR rule to cite that it is the Board that has exclusive control over the remarks of a member, a member/employee or director and disciplinary action thereof if deemed appropriate? Link to comment Share on other sites More sharing options...
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