Our community always allowed members to submit their ballots for elections before the meeting starts. These people were unable to attend the meeting so placed their ballots early. This new board, without telling anyone, decided this practice would no longer be allowed. If you didn't attend the meeting, you could not vote. I see nothing in our bylaws pertaining to this. Is it legal for the board to suddenly change former practices, especially without notifying the membership beforehand? Thanks for your input. P.S.-We are a small homeowners association in PA.