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Bruce Wolfe

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  1. Mr. Katz, Thank you. Actually, there is no legal opinion nor is there any known publicly written opinion from the city attorney thus no other body of law or caselaw. When this happens the city defaults to RONR. I will say that the city attorney has offered simple advice and guidance that is not based in law which is counter to the good government laws that I am more concerned about. Without an official written public opinion from the city attorney, ordinance or caselaw, it is still up for interpretation which is why I am here asking your opinions. Mr. Brown's response has contained an ans
  2. Well, that is a very good question regarding asking the city attorney but considering there is a plethora of experts here I am exercising as a first step to just see if there is some standard or consensus on the question. If a bunch of folks come forward to say, "Oh, there's an obvious/standard answer" and you all say the same thing then the question would be satisfied and I'll be on my way. If not, then I'll wait to for a few more folks to chime in before giving more information. The point being is if there is a standard either implicit or explicit because I'm in a conundrum. But to answ
  3. Please do feel free to say if this question is inappropriate for this forum. I am a public official and sit on an administrative quasi-judicial government body that oversees open meetings and public disclosure law for our city. We are having a bit of debate about what a passage's intent means in our governing open meetings law that pertains to meeting procedure. I thought my many years of practice in parliamentary procedure that the parliamentarian community may be a good place to check in albeit constitutional and legal construction subject matter experts. That said, the passage go
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